Differential-Equations · Unit 11 · Video 4 · Interactive Practice
Uniqueness: Why c₁y₁ + c₂y₂ Is Every Solution
I Key Formulas
Key Insight: Superposition (linearity) puts every c 1 y 1 + c 2 y 2 c_1y_1 + c_2y_2 c 1 y 1 + c 2 y 2 among the solutions; uniqueness (continuous p , q p, q p , q ) leaves no solution outside them.
II Visualization 1 — Read the Constants off the Initial Values
For y ′ ′ − y = 0 y'' - y = 0 y ′′ − y = 0 the solution with y ( 0 ) = y 0 y(0) = y_0 y ( 0 ) = y 0 , y ′ ( 0 ) = y 0 ′ y'(0) = y_0' y ′ ( 0 ) = y 0 ′ is y 0 cosh x + y 0 ′ sinh x y_0\cosh x + y_0'\sinh x y 0 cosh x + y 0 ′ sinh x , with nothing to solve.
III Visualization 2 — Uniqueness Catches Any Solution
A solution u u u , written any way at all, coincides with c 1 Y 1 + c 2 Y 2 c_1Y_1 + c_2Y_2 c 1 Y 1 + c 2 Y 2 exactly when c 1 = u ( 0 ) c_1 = u(0) c 1 = u ( 0 ) and c 2 = u ′ ( 0 ) c_2 = u'(0) c 2 = u ′ ( 0 ) .
IV Quiz Questions
Problem 1 · Writing Down the Answer
Given: y ′ ′ + y = 0 y'' + y = 0 y ′′ + y = 0 , y ( 0 ) = 3 y(0) = 3 y ( 0 ) = 3 , y ′ ( 0 ) = − 2 y'(0) = -2 y ′ ( 0 ) = − 2 — find the solution.
a y = − 2 cos x + 3 sin x y = -2\cos x + 3\sin x y = − 2 cos x + 3 sin x
b y = 3 cos x + 2 sin x y = 3\cos x + 2\sin x y = 3 cos x + 2 sin x
c y = 3 cosh x − 2 sinh x y = 3\cosh x - 2\sinh x y = 3 cosh x − 2 sinh x
d y = 3 cos x − 2 sin x y = 3\cos x - 2\sin x y = 3 cos x − 2 sin x
✅ Correct! Y 1 = cos x Y_1 = \cos x Y 1 = cos x ,
Y 2 = sin x Y_2 = \sin x Y 2 = sin x , so
y = y 0 Y 1 + y 0 ′ Y 2 = 3 cos x − 2 sin x y = y_0Y_1 + y_0'Y_2 = 3\cos x - 2\sin x y = y 0 Y 1 + y 0 ′ Y 2 = 3 cos x − 2 sin x .
❌ Not quite. The value
y 0 y_0 y 0 goes with
Y 1 Y_1 Y 1 (value
1 1 1 at
0 0 0 ) and the slope
y 0 ′ y_0' y 0 ′ with
Y 2 Y_2 Y 2 — you swapped them.
❌ Check the sign. The coefficient of
Y 2 = sin x Y_2 = \sin x Y 2 = sin x is
y ′ ( 0 ) = − 2 y'(0) = -2 y ′ ( 0 ) = − 2 itself.
❌ Not quite. cosh \cosh cosh and
sinh \sinh sinh are the normalized pair of
y ′ ′ − y = 0 y'' - y = 0 y ′′ − y = 0 . For
y ′ ′ + y = 0 y'' + y = 0 y ′′ + y = 0 it is
cos x \cos x cos x ,
sin x \sin x sin x .
Show solution
The normalized solutions of y ′ ′ + y = 0 y'' + y = 0 y ′′ + y = 0 at 0 0 0 are Y 1 = cos x Y_1 = \cos x Y 1 = cos x and Y 2 = sin x Y_2 = \sin x Y 2 = sin x , so
y = 3 cos x + ( − 2 ) sin x = 3 cos x − 2 sin x . y = 3\cos x + (-2)\sin x = 3\cos x - 2\sin x. y = 3 cos x + ( − 2 ) sin x = 3 cos x − 2 sin x .
Check: y ( 0 ) = 3 y(0) = 3 y ( 0 ) = 3 , and y ′ = − 3 sin x − 2 cos x y' = -3\sin x - 2\cos x y ′ = − 3 sin x − 2 cos x gives y ′ ( 0 ) = − 2 y'(0) = -2 y ′ ( 0 ) = − 2 .
Problem 2 · From cosh and sinh to Exponentials
Given: y ′ ′ − y = 0 y'' - y = 0 y ′′ − y = 0 , y ( 0 ) = 1 y(0) = 1 y ( 0 ) = 1 , y ′ ( 0 ) = 3 y'(0) = 3 y ′ ( 0 ) = 3 — write the solution as c 1 e x + c 2 e − x c_1e^x + c_2e^{-x} c 1 e x + c 2 e − x .
a y = e x + 3 e − x y = e^x + 3e^{-x} y = e x + 3 e − x
b y = 2 e x − e − x y = 2e^x - e^{-x} y = 2 e x − e − x
c y = − e x + 2 e − x y = -e^x + 2e^{-x} y = − e x + 2 e − x
d y = 4 e x − 2 e − x y = 4e^x - 2e^{-x} y = 4 e x − 2 e − x
✅ Correct! cosh x + 3 sinh x = e x + e − x 2 + 3 e x − 3 e − x 2 = 2 e x − e − x \cosh x + 3\sinh x = \frac{e^x + e^{-x}}{2} + \frac{3e^x - 3e^{-x}}{2} = 2e^x - e^{-x} cosh x + 3 sinh x = 2 e x + e − x + 2 3 e x − 3 e − x = 2 e x − e − x .
❌ Not quite. The initial values are the coefficients of
cosh x \cosh x cosh x and
sinh x \sinh x sinh x , not of
e x e^x e x and
e − x e^{-x} e − x : this one has
y ′ ( 0 ) = 1 − 3 = − 2 y'(0) = 1 - 3 = -2 y ′ ( 0 ) = 1 − 3 = − 2 .
❌ Not quite. You swapped the coefficients: this has
y ( 0 ) = 1 y(0) = 1 y ( 0 ) = 1 but
y ′ ( 0 ) = − 1 − 2 = − 3 y'(0) = -1 - 2 = -3 y ′ ( 0 ) = − 1 − 2 = − 3 .
❌ Not quite. cosh \cosh cosh and
sinh \sinh sinh carry a factor
1 2 \frac{1}{2} 2 1 : this function has
y ( 0 ) = 2 y(0) = 2 y ( 0 ) = 2 .
Show solution
y = 1 ⋅ cosh x + 3 sinh x = e x + e − x 2 + 3 e x − 3 e − x 2 = 4 e x − 2 e − x 2 = 2 e x − e − x . y = 1\cdot\cosh x + 3\sinh x = \frac{e^x + e^{-x}}{2} + \frac{3e^x - 3e^{-x}}{2} = \frac{4e^x - 2e^{-x}}{2} = 2e^x - e^{-x}. y = 1 ⋅ cosh x + 3 sinh x = 2 e x + e − x + 2 3 e x − 3 e − x = 2 4 e x − 2 e − x = 2 e x − e − x .
Check: y ( 0 ) = 2 − 1 = 1 y(0) = 2 - 1 = 1 y ( 0 ) = 2 − 1 = 1 and y ′ ( 0 ) = 2 + 1 = 3 y'(0) = 2 + 1 = 3 y ′ ( 0 ) = 2 + 1 = 3 . Solving c 1 + c 2 = 1 c_1 + c_2 = 1 c 1 + c 2 = 1 , c 1 − c 2 = 3 c_1 - c_2 = 3 c 1 − c 2 = 3 directly gives the same c 1 = 2 c_1 = 2 c 1 = 2 , c 2 = − 1 c_2 = -1 c 2 = − 1 .
Problem 3 · Zero Value, Zero Slope
Given: u u u solves y ′ ′ + p ( x ) y ′ + q ( x ) y = 0 y'' + p(x)\,y' + q(x)\,y = 0 y ′′ + p ( x ) y ′ + q ( x ) y = 0 with p , q p, q p , q continuous for all x x x , and u ( 2 ) = 0 u(2) = 0 u ( 2 ) = 0 , u ′ ( 2 ) = 0 u'(2) = 0 u ′ ( 2 ) = 0 — what is u u u ?
a u ≡ 0 u \equiv 0 u ≡ 0
b u = c ( x − 2 ) 2 u = c\,(x - 2)^2 u = c ( x − 2 ) 2 for some constant c c c
c u u u is some multiple of Y 2 Y_2 Y 2
d It cannot be determined without p p p and q q q
✅ Correct! The zero function is a solution with value
0 0 0 and slope
0 0 0 at
2 2 2 , and uniqueness allows only one such solution.
❌ Not quite. ( x − 2 ) 2 (x - 2)^2 ( x − 2 ) 2 has the right value and slope at
2 2 2 , but uniqueness says only one solution does — and
0 0 0 already does.
❌ Not quite. Y 2 Y_2 Y 2 has slope
1 1 1 at its normalization point, so a nonzero multiple of it cannot have slope
0 0 0 there.
❌ Not quite. Whatever continuous
p p p and
q q q are,
y = 0 y = 0 y = 0 solves the equation, and uniqueness then forces
u = 0 u = 0 u = 0 .
Show solution
The function y ≡ 0 y \equiv 0 y ≡ 0 solves every homogeneous linear equation and has y ( 2 ) = 0 y(2) = 0 y ( 2 ) = 0 , y ′ ( 2 ) = 0 y'(2) = 0 y ′ ( 2 ) = 0 . By the existence and uniqueness theorem (with x 0 = 2 x_0 = 2 x 0 = 2 , A = B = 0 A = B = 0 A = B = 0 ) there is only one such solution, so u ≡ 0 u \equiv 0 u ≡ 0 .
A solution that touches the axis with zero slope therefore cannot be a nonzero solution — the graph of a nonzero solution crosses the axis with nonzero slope.
Problem 4 · Initial Values at x 0 = π x_0 = \pi x 0 = π
Given: y ′ ′ + y = 0 y'' + y = 0 y ′′ + y = 0 , y ( π ) = 2 y(\pi) = 2 y ( π ) = 2 , y ′ ( π ) = − 1 y'(\pi) = -1 y ′ ( π ) = − 1 — find the solution, using the pair normalized at π \pi π : cos ( x − π ) \cos(x - \pi) cos ( x − π ) and sin ( x − π ) \sin(x - \pi) sin ( x − π ) .
a y = 2 cos x − sin x y = 2\cos x - \sin x y = 2 cos x − sin x
b y = − 2 cos x − sin x y = -2\cos x - \sin x y = − 2 cos x − sin x
c y = − 2 cos x + sin x y = -2\cos x + \sin x y = − 2 cos x + sin x
d y = cos x − 2 sin x y = \cos x - 2\sin x y = cos x − 2 sin x
✅ Correct! 2 cos ( x − π ) − sin ( x − π ) = − 2 cos x + sin x 2\cos(x - \pi) - \sin(x - \pi) = -2\cos x + \sin x 2 cos ( x − π ) − sin ( x − π ) = − 2 cos x + sin x ; check
y ( π ) = 2 y(\pi) = 2 y ( π ) = 2 ,
y ′ ( π ) = 2 sin π + cos π = − 1 y'(\pi) = 2\sin\pi + \cos\pi = -1 y ′ ( π ) = 2 sin π + cos π = − 1 .
❌ Not quite. cos x \cos x cos x and
sin x \sin x sin x are normalized at
0 0 0 , not at
π \pi π : this function has
y ( π ) = − 2 y(\pi) = -2 y ( π ) = − 2 .
❌ Check a sign. sin ( x − π ) = − sin x \sin(x - \pi) = -\sin x sin ( x − π ) = − sin x , so
− sin ( x − π ) = + sin x -\sin(x - \pi) = +\sin x − sin ( x − π ) = + sin x .
❌ Not quite. The value goes with
cos ( x − π ) \cos(x - \pi) cos ( x − π ) and the slope with
sin ( x − π ) \sin(x - \pi) sin ( x − π ) ; this function has
y ( π ) = − 1 y(\pi) = -1 y ( π ) = − 1 .
Show solution
Y 1 = cos ( x − π ) Y_1 = \cos(x - \pi) Y 1 = cos ( x − π ) has value 1 1 1 , slope 0 0 0 at π \pi π ; Y 2 = sin ( x − π ) Y_2 = \sin(x - \pi) Y 2 = sin ( x − π ) has value 0 0 0 , slope 1 1 1 at π \pi π . So
y = 2 cos ( x − π ) + ( − 1 ) sin ( x − π ) = − 2 cos x + sin x , y = 2\cos(x - \pi) + (-1)\sin(x - \pi) = -2\cos x + \sin x, y = 2 cos ( x − π ) + ( − 1 ) sin ( x − π ) = − 2 cos x + sin x ,
using cos ( x − π ) = − cos x \cos(x - \pi) = -\cos x cos ( x − π ) = − cos x and sin ( x − π ) = − sin x \sin(x - \pi) = -\sin x sin ( x − π ) = − sin x . Check: y ( π ) = − 2 ( − 1 ) + 0 = 2 y(\pi) = -2(-1) + 0 = 2 y ( π ) = − 2 ( − 1 ) + 0 = 2 and y ′ = 2 sin x + cos x y' = 2\sin x + \cos x y ′ = 2 sin x + cos x , so y ′ ( π ) = − 1 y'(\pi) = -1 y ′ ( π ) = − 1 .
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