Cumulative costs of holding the asset, less the benefit of having it on hand
Key Insight: No forecast of ST appears anywhere — only S0, rf, T and storage. If F0,T rose above the replication cost, selling forward and carrying the asset would be a riskless profit.
IIVisualization 1 — Two Routes to the Asset at Date T
Both routes cost nothing at date 0 and deliver the asset at T, so their date-T costs must match.
IIIVisualization 2 — Arbitrage Enforcement
A forward price away from the replication cost invites a riskless trade — but not every gap can be closed.
IVQuiz Questions
Problem 1 · Forward Price by Cost of Carry
Given (illustrative figures): soybeans trade at a spot price of $25.00 per bushel. The risk-free rate is rf=4% a year (annual compounding), delivery is in T=2 years, and the future value at T of net storage costs is $0.75 per bushel — find the no-arbitrage forward price F0,2.
✅ Correct! Financed spot price $27.04 plus $0.75 of net storage gives $27.79.
❌ Not quite. That is only the loan repayment (1.04)2×25.00=27.04. Route two also pays the net storage costs at T.
❌ Check the sign. Net storage is a cost of carrying the asset, so it is added to the financed spot price, not subtracted.
❌ Close, but…25.00×(1+2×0.04)+0.75=27.75 uses simple interest. The video compounds annually: (1+rf)T.
❌ Not quite. Use F0,T=(1+rf)TS0+FVT(net storage costs).
Show solution
Route two borrows the spot price for two years and pays net storage at delivery:
Given: A commodity with no storage costs and no convenience yield trades at a spot price of $40.00. The risk-free rate is rf=6% a year, and delivery is in T=1 year. Analysts expect the spot price in one year to be $45.00 — find the forward price F0,1.
✅ Correct! The forward price is the replication cost 1.06×40.00=42.40; the $45.00 forecast plays no role.
❌ Not quite. The cost-of-carry relation has no E[ST] term. Replication pins the price using only S0, rf, T and storage.
❌ Close, but… Buying at $40.00 today means borrowing $40.00, and the loan must be repaid with interest at T.
❌ Not quite. Compute the cost of borrowing to buy and hold the asset until T.
Show solution
With no net storage costs, route two costs only the loan repayment:
F0,1=(1+rf)1S0+0=1.06×40.00=42.40
The forward price is $42.40. If the forward traded at the $45.00 forecast, you could sell forward, borrow $40.00 and buy the asset, then deliver at T for a riskless $2.60 — whatever the spot price turns out to be.
Problem 3 · A Forward Priced Too High
Given: Crude oil trades at a spot price of $60.00 per barrel, rf=5% a year, and T=1 year. Storing a barrel until T costs $2.50 and the convenience yield is worth $0.50 (both as date-T amounts). The one-year forward trades at $66.40 — find the arbitrage trade and its riskless profit per barrel at T.
Which trade earns a riskless profit?
What is the profit per barrel at T?
✅ Correct! The replication cost is $65.00, so selling forward at $66.40 and carrying the oil locks in $1.40 per barrel.
❌ Not quite. Compare F0,T with the replication cost (1+rf)TS0+FVT(net storage costs). When the forward is too high, sell it and replicate the long position.
❌ Not quite. Profit at T = forward price received − loan repayment − net storage costs.
❌ Not quite. The $60.00 was borrowed, so you repay 1.05×60.00=63.00, not $60.00, and you also pay net storage.
❌ Close, but… You subtracted the full $2.50 storage cost. Net storage costs are storage minus convenience yield: $2.00.
Show solution
Step 1: Replication cost. Net storage costs are $2.50 − $0.50 = $2.00, so
(1+rf)TS0+FVT=1.05×60.00+2.00=63.00+2.00=65.00
Step 2: Compare. The forward trades at $66.40, above $65.00, so sell the forward and carry the oil.
Step 3: Cash flows. Date 0: sell forward ($0), borrow $60.00, buy one barrel — net $0. Date T: deliver the barrel and collect $66.40, repay $63.00, pay $2.00 net storage:
66.40−63.00−2.00=1.40
Riskless profit: $1.40 per barrel, from a position that cost nothing today.
Problem 4 · A Forward Priced Too Low
Given: An asset with no storage costs and no convenience yield, which can be borrowed and sold short, trades at $100.00. The risk-free rate is rf=3% a year and the two-year forward trades at $104.00 — find the arbitrage trade and its riskless profit per unit at T=2.
Which trade earns a riskless profit?
What is the profit per unit at T?
✅ Correct! The replication cost is $106.09; buying forward at $104.00 against a short sale keeps the $2.09 gap.
❌ Not quite. Compare the forward with (1+rf)TS0, not with S0.
❌ Not quite. Selling forward and carrying pays 104.00−106.09<0 at T: that trade enforces the upper bound, and here the forward is too low.
❌ Not quite. The benchmark is the replication cost (1.03)2×100.00=106.09, not the spot price. The forward sits $2.09 below it.
❌ Not quite. That is long the asset twice, once through the forward and once outright, so nothing offsets and the payoff depends on ST. To exploit a forward below the replication cost, buy it and short the asset.
❌ Not quite. Profit at T = what the loan returns − forward price paid.
❌ Close, but…100.00×(1+2×0.03)=106.00 is simple interest. With annual compounding the loan returns (1.03)2×100.00.
❌ Not quite.104.00−100.00 ignores the interest earned on the lent proceeds, and has the direction backwards.
❌ Not quite.106.09−100.00 is the interest earned; you still pay the $104.00 forward price to take delivery, not the spot price.
Show solution
Step 1: Replication cost (no storage costs):
(1+rf)TS0=(1.03)2×100.00=1.0609×100.00=106.09
Step 2: Compare. The forward at $104.00 is below $106.09, so reverse every leg of the replication.
Step 3: Cash flows. Date 0: buy the forward ($0), short the asset (+$100.00), lend $100.00 at rf — net $0. Date T: the loan returns $106.09; pay $104.00, take delivery, and return the borrowed asset:
106.09−104.00=2.09
Riskless profit: $2.09 per unit. This lower-bound trade is guaranteed here because the asset can be shorted and has no storage costs.