Finance-Theory Β· Unit 15 Β· Video 3 Β· Interactive Practice

Why Hold a Portfolio? Diversification, Mean and Variance

IKey Formulas

FormulaNameWhat it measures
ΞΌp≑E[Rp]\mu_p \equiv \text{E}[R_p]Mean (reward)Central tendency of the return distribution
Prob(Rp≀q5%)=5%\text{Prob}(R_p \le q_{5\%}) = 5\%5th percentileHow bad the losses get, one year in twenty
Οƒp2≑E[(Rpβˆ’ΞΌp)2]\sigma_p^2 \equiv \text{E}[(R_p - \mu_p)^2]Variance (risk)Symmetric dispersion around the mean
Οƒp=SD[Rp]=Οƒp2\sigma_p = \text{SD}[R_p] = \sqrt{\sigma_p^2}Standard deviationDispersion in the units of the return

Key Insight: The mean-variance investor likes a higher E[Rp]\text{E}[R_p], dislikes a higher Οƒp2\sigma_p^2, cares about nothing else, and judges only the overall portfolio: a stock earns a place only if it raises E[Rp]\text{E}[R_p] or lowers SD[Rp]\text{SD}[R_p].

IIWhich Number Summarizes Reward?

The mean, the 75th percentile and the 5th percentile need not rank two funds the same way.

IIIVariance: Spread Around the Mean

With four equally likely scenarios, ΞΌp\mu_p is their balance point and Οƒp\sigma_p their root-mean-square distance from it, both probability-weighted (p=14p = \tfrac{1}{4} each): a distribution of outcomes, not a sample, so the variance divides by 44, not Tβˆ’1T - 1.

πŸ’‘ Challenge: keep ΞΌp=7%\mu_p = 7\% but double Οƒp\sigma_p to 24%24\%; then find a different arrangement with the same mean and the same Οƒp\sigma_p.

IVWhen a Positive Return Is the Loss

For a short seller the stock's positive return is the loss, yet the standard deviation does not change.

VQuiz Questions

Problem 1 Β· The Mean of a Return Distribution

Given: An illustrative fund's return next year is βˆ’10%-10\% with probability 14\tfrac{1}{4}, 14%14\% with probability 24\tfrac{2}{4}, and 22%22\% with probability 14\tfrac{1}{4}. Find its expected return ΞΌp=E[Rp]\mu_p = \text{E}[R_p].

βœ… Correct! Each scenario counts in proportion to its probability: βˆ’2.5+7+5.5=10-2.5 + 7 + 5.5 = 10.
❌ Not quite. 14%14\% is the single most likely outcome, not the probability-weighted average; the βˆ’10%-10\% and 22%22\% scenarios pull the mean away from it.
❌ Not quite. (βˆ’10+14+22)/3β‰ˆ8.7(-10 + 14 + 22)/3 \approx 8.7 treats the three scenarios as equally likely, but 14%14\% has probability 24\tfrac{2}{4}.
❌ Check the probabilities. The weight 24\tfrac{2}{4} belongs to the 14%14\% scenario, not the 22%22\% one.
❌ Not quite. Multiply each return by its probability and add.
Show solution

The mean is the probability-weighted average of the scenarios:

ΞΌp=14(βˆ’10%)+24(14%)+14(22%)=βˆ’2.5%+7%+5.5%=10%\mu_p = \tfrac{1}{4}(-10\%) + \tfrac{2}{4}(14\%) + \tfrac{1}{4}(22\%) = -2.5\% + 7\% + 5.5\% = 10\%

The probabilities add to one (14+24+14=1\tfrac{1}{4} + \tfrac{2}{4} + \tfrac{1}{4} = 1), so this is a complete distribution, and its central tendency is ΞΌp=10%\mu_p = 10\%.

Problem 2 Β· Risk for a Short Seller

Given: Rowan's return next year is modelled (illustrative) as four equally likely scenarios: βˆ’18%-18\%, 6%6\%, 14%14\%, 38%38\%, so Prob(R<0)=14\text{Prob}(R < 0) = \tfrac{1}{4} and Οƒ=20%\sigma = 20\%. You have sold Rowan short, so your return in each scenario is the negative of Rowan's.

Probability that your position loses money

Standard deviation of your short position's return

βœ… Correct! The "probability of a loss" depends on which side you hold; the standard deviation does not.
❌ That is Rowan's own probability of a negative return. You are short: Rowan's three positive scenarios are your losses.
❌ Not quite. Count the scenarios in which Rowan's return is positive: each one is a loss for a short seller.
❌ A standard deviation is never negative. It is the square root of an average of squared deviations; flipping every return flips every deviation, and squaring removes the sign.
❌ Not quite. Negating every return negates every deviation from the mean, and the squares are unchanged.
Show solution

Losses. Your returns are 18%18\%, βˆ’6%-6\%, βˆ’14%-14\%, βˆ’38%-38\%. Three of the four equally likely scenarios are losses, so the probability is 34\tfrac{3}{4}, although Rowan itself falls only with probability 14\tfrac{1}{4}. A risk measure built on "a negative stock return" would get this investor exactly backwards.

Spread. Your probability-weighted mean is 14(18βˆ’6βˆ’14βˆ’38)=βˆ’10%\tfrac{1}{4}(18 - 6 - 14 - 38) = -10\%, and your deviations are 2828, 44, βˆ’4-4, βˆ’28-28; each squared deviation is weighted by its probability 14\tfrac{1}{4} (a distribution, not a sample, so no Tβˆ’1T - 1):

Οƒ2=14(282+42+42+282)=14(1600)=400,Οƒ=400=20%\sigma^2 = \tfrac{1}{4}\left(28^2 + 4^2 + 4^2 + 28^2\right) = \tfrac{1}{4}(1600) = 400, \qquad \sigma = \sqrt{400} = 20\%

Rowan's own deviations are βˆ’28-28, βˆ’4-4, 44, 2828, with the same squares, so both sides of the trade have Οƒ=20%\sigma = 20\%: the symmetric measure never has to decide which direction is bad.

Problem 3 Β· Same Center, Wider Spread

Given: An illustrative fund's return next year is βˆ’13%-13\%, βˆ’13%-13\%, 27%27\% or 27%27\%, each scenario with probability 14\tfrac{1}{4}. Quill (illustrative) has ΞΌp=7%\mu_p = 7\% and Οƒp=12%\sigma_p = 12\%. Find the fund's standard deviation (probability-weighted), then compare it with Quill for a mean-variance investor.

The fund's standard deviation

Compared with Quill, the fund is

βœ… Correct! Two distributions centred at the same point: the wider one is riskier, and a mean-variance investor prefers the narrower one.
❌ Wrong divisor. 1600/3β‰ˆ23.1\sqrt{1600/3} \approx 23.1 divides by Tβˆ’1=3T - 1 = 3, the sample-variance divisor for estimating from past returns. These four outcomes are a probability distribution, so each squared deviation is weighted by its probability 14\tfrac{1}{4}.
❌ Not quite. 4040 is the range, 27βˆ’(βˆ’13)27 - (-13). The standard deviation measures spread around the mean: average the squared deviations, then take the square root.
❌ That is the variance. Οƒp2=400\sigma_p^2 = 400 (in squared percent); take the square root to get back to percent.
❌ Not quite. Find the mean first, then average the squared deviations (each with weight 14\tfrac{1}{4}) and take the square root.
❌ The upside comes with an equal downside. The fund's spread is symmetric: its βˆ’13%-13\% scenarios sit as far below the mean as its 27%27\% scenarios sit above it.
❌ Not quite. The mean-variance investor looks at exactly two numbers: equal means, so the standard deviations decide.
Show solution

Mean: ΞΌp=14(βˆ’13βˆ’13+27+27)=284=7%\mu_p = \tfrac{1}{4}(-13 - 13 + 27 + 27) = \tfrac{28}{4} = 7\%, the same as Quill.

Deviations from the mean: βˆ’20-20, βˆ’20-20, 2020, 2020.

Οƒp2=14(202+202+202+202)=16004=400,Οƒp=400=20%\sigma_p^2 = \tfrac{1}{4}\left(20^2 + 20^2 + 20^2 + 20^2\right) = \tfrac{1600}{4} = 400, \qquad \sigma_p = \sqrt{400} = 20\%

These are probability-weighted (population) figures for a distribution of possible outcomes, so each squared deviation gets its probability 14\tfrac{1}{4}; the Tβˆ’1T - 1 divisor belongs to the sample variance of past returns.

Comparison: both have ΞΌp=7%\mu_p = 7\%, but 20%20\% is larger than 12%12\%. The investor likes a higher mean, dislikes a higher variance and cares about nothing else, so with the means tied the fund with the larger spread is worse.

Problem 4 Β· Who Gets Into the Club?

Given: A mean-variance investor holds a well-diversified portfolio and considers four candidate stocks, one at a time. Which candidate has no reason to join the portfolio?

βœ… Correct! It neither raises the portfolio's expected return nor lowers its risk, so its impressive standalone mean is irrelevant.
❌ Not quite. The investor cares only about the overall portfolio: this stock lowers SD[Rp]\text{SD}[R_p] at no cost in expected return, whatever its risk held alone.
❌ Not quite. It raises E[Rp]\text{E}[R_p], so there is a reason to consider it; whether the extra risk is worth it is a trade-off, not a clear "no".
❌ Not quite. Ask of each candidate: does it raise the portfolio's expected return, or lower its risk?
Show solution

Adding a stock is like inviting someone into a club: the question is what the newcomer does to the portfolio's two numbers, E[Rp]\text{E}[R_p] and SD[Rp]\text{SD}[R_p].

  • (a) lowers risk at no cost in expected return: it has a reason to join.
  • (b) raises the expected return at the price of more risk: a trade-off the investor may accept.
  • (c) raises the expected return at no extra risk: it has a reason to join.
  • (d) lowers the expected return and raises the risk: the answer to both questions is no, so it does nothing for the portfolio.

How a stock looks on its own (the riskiest, the highest mean) does not decide anything; only its effect on the overall portfolio does.

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