Finance-Theory ยท Unit 21 ยท Video 2 ยท Interactive Practice

The Profitability Index: Right Sign, Wrong Size

IKey Formulas

FormulaNameWhat it says
PI=PVโˆ’CF0=PVI0\text{PI} = \dfrac{\text{PV}}{-CF_0} = \dfrac{\text{PV}}{I_0}Profitability indexGross PV of the future cash flows CF1,CF2,โ€ฆCF_1, CF_2, \dots per dollar of initial investment
NPV=PVโˆ’I0=I0โ€‰(PIโˆ’1)\text{NPV} = \text{PV} - I_0 = I_0\,(\text{PI} - 1)Same signI0>0I_0 > 0, so PI>1โ€…โ€ŠโŸบโ€…โ€ŠNPV>0\text{PI} > 1 \iff \text{NPV} > 0: identical accept/reject for one independent project
PIโˆ’1=NPVI0\text{PI} - 1 = \dfrac{\text{NPV}}{I_0}NPV per dollarRanking by it maximizes total NPV only for divisible projects under a single budget limit

Key Insight: A ratio keeps the sign of NPV and drops its size. For accept/reject that loss is harmless; for choosing between projects, or for money a strategy cannot absorb, you need the dollar amount, which is NPV.

IIVisualization 1 โ€” Why PI and NPV Always Agree on the Sign

Every project sits on the line NPV=I0(PIโˆ’1)\text{NPV} = I_0(\text{PI} - 1), which crosses zero exactly at PI=1\text{PI} = 1.

IIIVisualization 2 โ€” NPV Is an Area: Width I0I_0, Height PIโˆ’1\text{PI} - 1

PI ranks the video's two projects by height; NPV ranks them by area, and scale is the width.

IVVisualization 3 โ€” Capital Rationing: Ranking by PI Under a Budget

Filling a budget in PI order maximizes total NPV when projects are divisible, but not when they come whole.

๐Ÿ’ก The PI order is exactly right only under one budget limit with divisible projects; with several limits (say, this year's and next year's budgets) a single ratio cannot rank the projects either.

VQuiz Questions

Problem 1 ยท Compute the Profitability Index

Given: an independent project costs $1,500 today and pays $700 at the end of year 1 and $1,200 at the end of year 2. The cost of capital is r=12%r = 12\% a year. Find the profitability index and the decision.

โœ… Correct! PV โ‰ˆ $1,581.63, so PI โ‰ˆ 1.05 > 1, and NPV โ‰ˆ $81.63 > 0: the two rules agree, as they must.
โŒ Not quite. 1,900/1,500โ‰ˆ1.271{,}900 / 1{,}500 \approx 1.27 adds up the cash flows without discounting them. The numerator of PI is the present value at 12%12\%.
โŒ Not quite. 0.050.05 is NPV/I0=PIโˆ’1\text{NPV}/I_0 = \text{PI} - 1, the NPV per dollar. PI itself is PV/I0\text{PV}/I_0, which is one more than that, and it is above 1.
โŒ Not quite. That is I0/PVI_0/\text{PV}, the ratio upside down. PI puts the gross PV of the future cash flows on top: PV/I0\text{PV}/I_0.
โŒ Not quite. Discount each future cash flow at 12%12\%, add them for PV, then divide by I0=โˆ’CF0I_0 = -CF_0.
Show solution

Gross present value of the future cash flows (nothing subtracted):

PV=7001.12+1,2001.122โ‰ˆ625+956.63=1,581.63\text{PV} = \frac{700}{1.12} + \frac{1{,}200}{1.12^2} \approx 625 + 956.63 = 1{,}581.63

The initial investment is I0=โˆ’CF0=1,500I_0 = -CF_0 = 1{,}500, so

PI=PVI0โ‰ˆ1,581.631,500โ‰ˆ1.054\text{PI} = \frac{\text{PV}}{I_0} \approx \frac{1{,}581.63}{1{,}500} \approx 1.054

PI>1\text{PI} > 1, so accept. Check: NPV=PVโˆ’I0โ‰ˆ\text{NPV} = \text{PV} - I_0 \approx $81.63 >0> 0, and I0(PIโˆ’1)=I0โ‹…PVI0โˆ’I0=PVโˆ’I0I_0(\text{PI} - 1) = I_0 \cdot \frac{\text{PV}}{I_0} - I_0 = \text{PV} - I_0 is the same number.

Problem 2 ยท Two Mutually Exclusive Projects

Given: you can take only one of two projects; the cost of capital is r=12%r = 12\%. Project A costs $1,500 today and pays $2,240 in one year. Project B costs $4,000 today and pays $5,600 in one year. Which should you take, and why?

โœ… Correct! When you can take only one, you want the one that adds more dollars of value. B is smaller per dollar but bigger in total.
โŒ That is the PI rule's mistake. A has the higher ratio, but NPV=I0(PIโˆ’1)\text{NPV} = I_0(\text{PI} - 1): B's $4,000 at 0.250.25 per dollar is worth more than A's $1,500 at about 0.330.33 per dollar.
โŒ Not quite. PI > 1 tells you each project is acceptable on its own, but the projects are mutually exclusive: you must choose one.
โŒ Not quite. A rate of return is a ratio too, and it drops the scale just as PI does. Compare the dollar amounts of value created.
Show solution

Project A: PV=2,240/1.12=2,000\text{PV} = 2{,}240/1.12 = 2{,}000, so NPV=2,000โˆ’1,500=500\text{NPV} = 2{,}000 - 1{,}500 = 500 and PI=2,000/1,500โ‰ˆ1.33\text{PI} = 2{,}000/1{,}500 \approx 1.33.

Project B: PV=5,600/1.12=5,000\text{PV} = 5{,}600/1.12 = 5{,}000, so NPV=5,000โˆ’4,000=1,000\text{NPV} = 5{,}000 - 4{,}000 = 1{,}000 and PI=5,000/4,000=1.25\text{PI} = 5{,}000/4{,}000 = 1.25.

PI ranks A first; NPV ranks B first, by $500. Choose B. Another view: the extra money B needs, $2,500 today, brings an extra $3,360 next year, and 3,360/1.12โˆ’2,500=500>03{,}360/1.12 - 2{,}500 = 500 > 0, so the additional scale is itself worth taking.

Problem 3 ยท Capital Rationing With Whole Projects

Given: a $4,000 capital budget at r=12%r = 12\% and three independent projects, each taken whole or not at all: X needs $1,500 with PI=1.40\text{PI} = 1.40; Y needs $2,500 with PI=1.30\text{PI} = 1.30; Z needs $4,000 with PI=1.35\text{PI} = 1.35.

Filling the budget in PI order (skipping any project that no longer fits), what total NPV do you get?

Which choice gives the most total NPV within the budget?

โœ… Correct! The PI order buys $1,350 of NPV; Z alone buys $1,400. With whole projects the highest ratios need not add up to the most dollars.
โŒ Not quite. After X, $2,500 is left: Z does not fit, but you skip it and move on to Y, which does.
โŒ Not quite. $1,475 takes X plus five-eighths of Z, which is what PI order gives if projects were divisible. Here each project comes whole.
โŒ Not quite. X and Z together need $5,500, more than the $4,000 budget.
โŒ That is the PI order's answer. X and Y give $600 + $750 = $1,350; another combination that fits the budget gives more.
โŒ Not quite. X has the highest PI, but alone it uses $1,500 and leaves $2,500 idle, for an NPV of only $600.
โŒ Not quite. Convert each PI to dollars with NPV=I0(PIโˆ’1)\text{NPV} = I_0(\text{PI} - 1), then add the NPVs of the projects the PI order takes.
โŒ Not quite. Compare the total NPV of every combination that fits in $4,000.
Show solution

Dollar NPVs from NPV=I0(PIโˆ’1)\text{NPV} = I_0(\text{PI} - 1): X: 1,500ร—0.40=6001{,}500 \times 0.40 = 600; Y: 2,500ร—0.30=7502{,}500 \times 0.30 = 750; Z: 4,000ร—0.35=1,4004{,}000 \times 0.35 = 1{,}400.

PI order is X (1.401.40), Z (1.351.35), Y (1.301.30). Take X, leaving $2,500; Z needs $4,000, so skip it; Y needs $2,500, so take it. Total NPV: 600+750=1,350600 + 750 = 1{,}350.

Every combination that fits: X alone $600, Y alone $750, Z alone $1,400, X and Y $1,350 (X and Z, Y and Z, or all three exceed $4,000). The best is Z alone, with $1,400.

If the projects were divisible, PI order would be right: X, then $2,500 of Z at 0.350.35 per dollar, for 600+875=1,475600 + 875 = 1{,}475.

Problem 4 ยท The Assumption Behind a Ratio

Given: a team finds a one-year project in a narrow niche: invest $1,500 now and receive $2,016 in one year. At r=12%r = 12\%, PV is $1,800, so PI=1.2\text{PI} = 1.2 and NPV is $300. They now propose putting $4,000 into the same niche and report an NPV of $4,000 ร— 0.2 = $800. What does that $800 figure assume?

โœ… Correct! Multiplying NPV per dollar by a bigger I0I_0 assumes the same cash per dollar at any size. A narrow niche may not absorb the extra money, and then the payoff per dollar falls.
โŒ Not quite. That equivalence is an identity, true whenever I0>0I_0 > 0; it says nothing about how the payoff changes with size.
โŒ Not quite. Treating them as alternatives would be a reason to compare their NPVs, not an assumption behind the $800.
โŒ Not quite. The $800 keeps r=12%r = 12\% and the payoff per dollar unchanged; a rising cost of capital would lower the figure, not produce it.
Show solution

At $1,500: PV=2,016/1.12=1,800\text{PV} = 2{,}016/1.12 = 1{,}800, PI=1,800/1,500=1.2\text{PI} = 1{,}800/1{,}500 = 1.2, and NPV=300=1,500ร—0.2\text{NPV} = 300 = 1{,}500 \times 0.2.

The $800 multiplies the same NPV per dollar, PIโˆ’1=0.2\text{PI} - 1 = 0.2, by $4,000. That is right only if the niche still pays 2,016/1,500=1.3442{,}016/1{,}500 = 1.344 per dollar a year later when $4,000 goes in, that is, if scale does not matter. Expressing an opportunity as a ratio (PI, or a rate of return) builds in exactly this assumption. For a narrow, capacity-constrained niche it is likely false: the more money goes in, the less each dollar earns.

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