Finance-Theory ยท Unit 7 ยท Video 4 ยท Interactive Practice

Fixed-Income Arbitrage: No Solution Means a Trade

IKey Formulas

FormulaNameWhat you need
Pi=Ci1P0,1+Ci2P0,2+โ‹ฏ+CiTP0,TP_i = C_{i1} P_{0,1} + C_{i2} P_{0,2} + \cdots + C_{iT} P_{0,T}One equation per bond, i=1,โ€ฆ,ni = 1, \ldots, nKnown: the market price PiP_i and the cash flows CitC_{it}. Unknown: the TT discount-bond prices P0,tP_{0,t}, shared by every bond
n>Tn > TOver-determined systemMore bonds than payment dates: 353 Treasury notes and bonds (31 August 2026) against at most 30 annual dates, or about 230 real payment dates
(C31,C32)=w1(C11,C12)+w2(C21,C22)(C_{31}, C_{32}) = w_1 (C_{11}, C_{12}) + w_2 (C_{21}, C_{22})Replication weightsTwo bonds whose coefficient rows are not proportional; then weights always exist
P3=w1P1+w2P2P_3 = w_1 P_1 + w_2 P_2Condition for a solution (linear dependence)The same weights applied to the prices; if it fails, the system has no solution

Key Insight: If P3>w1P1+w2P2P_3 > w_1 P_1 + w_2 P_2, sell bond 3 and buy w1w_1 of bond 1 and w2w_2 of bond 2: every future payment cancels and you keep P3โˆ’(w1P1+w2P2)P_3 - (w_1 P_1 + w_2 P_2) today. If P3<w1P1+w2P2P_3 < w_1 P_1 + w_2 P_2, reverse every position. No solution means a riskless trade.

IIThree Equations, Two Unknowns

Each bond is a line in the (P0,1,P0,2)(P_{0,1}, P_{0,2}) plane; a solution is a point on every line.

IIIBuilding the Riskless Trade

Which holdings of the three bonds put cash in hand today and cancel every future payment?

Position ($, face $100)TodayYear 1Year 2
Net

๐Ÿ’ก Challenge: at the quote 100.66 the 6% bond is too cheap; find the position that collects 1.00 today with nothing owed in either year.

IVQuiz Questions

Problem 1 ยท Pricing a Bond from the Discount Prices

Given: The 2% and 10% bonds of the video imply P0,1=0.96P_{0,1} = 0.96 and P0,2=0.90P_{0,2} = 0.90. Find the price of a 4% two-year bond (face $100, annual coupons) that keeps the three equations consistent.

โœ… Correct! 4(0.96)+104(0.90)=3.84+93.60=97.444(0.96) + 104(0.90) = 3.84 + 93.60 = 97.44: each cash flow is valued at the discount-bond price of its own date.
โŒ Not quite. 4(0.90)+104(0.96)=103.444(0.90) + 104(0.96) = 103.44 pairs the year-1 coupon with P0,2P_{0,2} and the year-2 payment with P0,1P_{0,1}. The payment at date tt takes P0,tP_{0,t}.
โŒ Not quite. 4(0.96)+100(0.90)=93.844(0.96) + 100(0.90) = 93.84 leaves out the year-2 coupon. The bond's final payment is coupon plus face, 4+100=1044 + 100 = 104.
โŒ Not quite. 104(0.90)=93.60104(0.90) = 93.60 values only the final payment. The year-1 coupon of 4 is worth 4(0.96)=3.844(0.96) = 3.84 today and must be added.
Show solution

The 4% bond pays 4 in year 1 and 104104 in year 2, so its row of the system reads

P4=4โ€‰P0,1+104โ€‰P0,2=4(0.96)+104(0.90)=3.84+93.60=97.44P_4 = 4\,P_{0,1} + 104\,P_{0,2} = 4(0.96) + 104(0.90) = 3.84 + 93.60 = 97.44

The same price comes from replication: (4,104)=34(2,102)+14(10,110)(4, 104) = \tfrac{3}{4}(2, 102) + \tfrac{1}{4}(10, 110), so the price must be 34(93.72)+14(108.60)=70.29+27.15=97.44\tfrac{3}{4}(93.72) + \tfrac{1}{4}(108.60) = 70.29 + 27.15 = 97.44. Any other quote makes the system inconsistent.

Problem 2 ยท Which Way Is the Trade?

Given: The 2% and 10% bonds trade at $93.72 and $108.60, as in the video, but the 6% bond is quoted at $100.76. Which position is an arbitrage?

โœ… Correct! The first two bonds value the 6% bond at 101.16, so at 100.76 it is 0.40 too cheap. Buying 2 costs 201.52, selling the pair brings in 202.32: you keep 0.80 today, and the year-1 flows (12โˆ’2โˆ’1012 - 2 - 10) and year-2 flows (212โˆ’102โˆ’110212 - 102 - 110) are both 0.
โŒ That is the video's trade, but the mispricing has flipped. At 100.76 the 6% bond is below its value of 101.16. Selling 2 brings in 201.52 while the pair costs 202.32, so you pay 0.80 today. Buy the cheap bond, sell the expensive pair.
โŒ Not quite. The direction is right but the amounts are not: year 1 nets 6โˆ’2โˆ’10=โˆ’66 - 2 - 10 = -6 and year 2 nets 106โˆ’102โˆ’110=โˆ’106106 - 102 - 110 = -106, so you still owe money later. The 6% bond's cash flows are the average of the other two, so it takes 2 of it to match 1 of each.
โŒ Not quite. Market prices are data, not a homework answer to be corrected. When the three equations have no common solution, a combination of the bonds costs nothing, pays cash today and owes nothing later: that is the arbitrage.
Show solution

From the first two bonds, P0,1=0.96P_{0,1} = 0.96 and P0,2=0.90P_{0,2} = 0.90, so the 6% bond is worth 6(0.96)+106(0.90)=101.16=12(93.72+108.60)6(0.96) + 106(0.90) = 101.16 = \tfrac{1}{2}(93.72 + 108.60). Its quote of 100.76 is 0.40 too low.

With weights w1=w2=12w_1 = w_2 = \tfrac{1}{2} doubled, buy 2 of the 6% bond and sell 1 each of the others:

PositionTodayYear 1Year 2
buy 2 of the 6%โˆ’201.52-201.52+12+12+212+212
sell 1 of the 2%+93.72+93.72โˆ’2-2โˆ’102-102
sell 1 of the 10%+108.60+108.60โˆ’10-10โˆ’110-110
Net+0.80+0.800000

The profit is 2ร—0.40=0.802 \times 0.40 = 0.80, with no payment owed in either year. Selling the 2% and 10% bonds you do not own is a short sale, so the trade needs short selling to be allowed.

Problem 3 ยท Solve Two, Test the Third

Given: Three two-year bonds, face $100, annual coupons: bond A pays 2% and trades at $91.66, bond B pays 8% and trades at $102.64, bond C pays 5% and is quoted at $97.50. Find P0,2P_{0,2} from bonds A and B, then decide whether bond C is mispriced.

What is P0,2P_{0,2}?

What does bond C's quote imply?

โœ… Correct! P0,1=0.95P_{0,1} = 0.95, P0,2=0.88P_{0,2} = 0.88 value C at 5(0.95)+105(0.88)=97.155(0.95) + 105(0.88) = 97.15, so its quote is 0.35 too high. Selling 2 of C and buying A and B keeps 195.00โˆ’194.30=0.70195.00 - 194.30 = 0.70 today with every future payment cancelled.
โŒ Not quite. 0.950.95 is P0,1P_{0,1}, the price of 1 paid in year 1. Eliminate the year-1 terms first: 4ร—4 \times(A's row) โˆ’- (B's row) leaves only P0,2P_{0,2}.
โŒ Not quite. 0.900.90 is the video's value for different bonds. Solve this system: 4(91.66)โˆ’102.64=2644(91.66) - 102.64 = 264 and 4(102)โˆ’108=3004(102) - 108 = 300.
โŒ Not quite. 91.66/10291.66 / 102 uses bond A alone and ignores its year-1 coupon of 2. One equation cannot pin down two unknowns; combine A and B.
โŒ Check P0,2P_{0,2}. Multiply A's equation by 4 and subtract B's, so the year-1 terms cancel.
โŒ Check the direction. C is worth 97.15 but quoted at 97.50: the quote is above value, so C is the one to sell.
โŒ Check the amounts. Selling 1 of C leaves year 1 at โˆ’5+2+8=5-5 + 2 + 8 = 5 and year 2 at โˆ’105+102+108=105-105 + 102 + 108 = 105: the future flows do not cancel. C's cash flows are half of A's plus half of B's, so sell 2 of C per pair, and the gap per bond is 97.50โˆ’97.15=0.3597.50 - 97.15 = 0.35.
โŒ Not quite. A coupon between A's and B's only means the replicating weights are positive. Consistency needs C's quote to equal 12(91.66)+12(102.64)=97.15\tfrac{1}{2}(91.66) + \tfrac{1}{2}(102.64) = 97.15, and it is 97.50.
Show solution

Bonds A and B give two equations:

2โ€‰P0,1+102โ€‰P0,2=91.66,8โ€‰P0,1+108โ€‰P0,2=102.642\,P_{0,1} + 102\,P_{0,2} = 91.66, \qquad 8\,P_{0,1} + 108\,P_{0,2} = 102.64

Four times the first minus the second cancels the year-1 terms:

(408โˆ’108)โ€‰P0,2=366.64โˆ’102.64โ€…โ€Šโ‡’โ€…โ€Š300โ€‰P0,2=264โ€…โ€Šโ‡’โ€…โ€ŠP0,2=0.88(408 - 108)\,P_{0,2} = 366.64 - 102.64 \;\Rightarrow\; 300\,P_{0,2} = 264 \;\Rightarrow\; P_{0,2} = 0.88 P0,1=91.66โˆ’102(0.88)2=91.66โˆ’89.762=0.95P_{0,1} = \frac{91.66 - 102(0.88)}{2} = \frac{91.66 - 89.76}{2} = 0.95

Bond C's value: 5(0.95)+105(0.88)=4.75+92.40=97.155(0.95) + 105(0.88) = 4.75 + 92.40 = 97.15. Equivalently (5,105)=12(2,102)+12(8,108)(5, 105) = \tfrac{1}{2}(2, 102) + \tfrac{1}{2}(8, 108), so C must trade at 12(91.66+102.64)=97.15\tfrac{1}{2}(91.66 + 102.64) = 97.15. The quote 97.50 is 0.35 too high, so the system has no solution.

Sell 2 of C for 195.00195.00 and buy 1 each of A and B for 194.30194.30. Today: +0.70+0.70. Year 1: โˆ’10+2+8=0-10 + 2 + 8 = 0. Year 2: โˆ’210+102+108=0-210 + 102 + 108 = 0.

Problem 4 ยท Replicating a Bond Outside the Range

Given: The video's 2% bond (P1=93.72P_1 = 93.72) and 10% bond (P2=108.60P_2 = 108.60). A 12% two-year bond (face $100, annual coupons) pays (12,112)(12, 112). Find the weights w1w_1 on the 2% bond and w2w_2 on the 10% bond that replicate it, and the price that keeps the system consistent.

Which weights replicate (12,112)(12, 112)?

What price keeps the three equations consistent?

โœ… Correct! โˆ’0.25(2,102)+1.25(10,110)=(12,112)-0.25(2, 102) + 1.25(10, 110) = (12, 112), so the 12% bond is 1.25 of the 10% bond with 0.25 of the 2% bond sold short, worth โˆ’0.25(93.72)+1.25(108.60)=112.32-0.25(93.72) + 1.25(108.60) = 112.32.
โŒ Not quite. Half of each gives (6,106)(6, 106), the video's 6% bond. The year-1 row needs 2w1+10w2=122w_1 + 10w_2 = 12.
โŒ Not quite. The two coefficient rows are not proportional, so weights always exist; outside the range one of them is negative, which is a short sale.
โŒ Check the weights. Year 2 minus year 1 gives 100(w1+w2)=100100(w_1 + w_2) = 100, so w1+w2=1w_1 + w_2 = 1; then 2w1+10w2=122w_1 + 10w_2 = 12.
โŒ Not quite. 12(0.90)+112(0.96)=118.3212(0.90) + 112(0.96) = 118.32 swaps the two discount prices. The year-1 coupon takes P0,1=0.96P_{0,1} = 0.96.
โŒ Not quite. 1.25(108.60)=135.751.25(108.60) = 135.75 prices only the long leg. The short 0.25 of the 2% bond brings in 0.25(93.72)=23.430.25(93.72) = 23.43, which lowers the cost.
โŒ Not quite. 159.18159.18 adds 0.25(93.72)0.25(93.72) instead of subtracting it. The weight on the 2% bond is negative.
โŒ Check the price. Apply the weights to the prices: w1(93.72)+w2(108.60)w_1(93.72) + w_2(108.60).
Show solution

Match both dates:

2w1+10w2=12,102w1+110w2=1122w_1 + 10w_2 = 12, \qquad 102w_1 + 110w_2 = 112

Subtracting the first from the second gives 100w1+100w2=100100w_1 + 100w_2 = 100, so w1+w2=1w_1 + w_2 = 1. Then 2(1โˆ’w2)+10w2=122(1 - w_2) + 10w_2 = 12, so 8w2=108w_2 = 10: w2=1.25w_2 = 1.25 and w1=โˆ’0.25w_1 = -0.25.

The price the system requires:

โˆ’0.25(93.72)+1.25(108.60)=โˆ’23.43+135.75=112.32-0.25(93.72) + 1.25(108.60) = -23.43 + 135.75 = 112.32

Check with the discount prices: 12(0.96)+112(0.90)=11.52+100.80=112.3212(0.96) + 112(0.90) = 11.52 + 100.80 = 112.32. A quote above 112.32 means sell the 12% bond, buy 1.25 of the 10% bond and short 0.25 of the 2% bond; a quote below means the reverse.

Solved: 0 / 4