Single-Variable-Calculus Ā· Unit 11 Ā· Video 5 Ā· Interactive Practice

Consequences of the Mean Value Theorem: Increasing Functions and Proving Inequalities

IKey Formulas

FormulaNameWhat it gives
f(b)=f(a)+f′(c)(bāˆ’a),Ā Ā a<c<bf(b) = f(a) + f'(c)(b - a),\ \ a < c < bMean Value Theorem, rearrangedExact; cc is unknown
f′>0⇒ff' > 0 \Rightarrow f increasing; Ā f′<0⇒f\ f' < 0 \Rightarrow f decreasing; Ā f′=0⇒f\ f' = 0 \Rightarrow f constantSign consequencesSign of f′(c)f'(c) times bāˆ’a>0b - a > 0
min⁔a≤x≤bf′(x)≤f(b)āˆ’f(a)bāˆ’a≤max⁔a≤x≤bf′(x)\displaystyle \min_{a \le x \le b} f'(x) \le \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} \le \max_{a \le x \le b} f'(x)Mean Value boundAverage rate between extreme rates
f(x)ā‰ˆf(a)+f′(a)(xāˆ’a)f(x) \approx f(a) + f'(a)(x - a)Linear approximationApproximate, for xx near aa

Key Insight: The derivative is a limit, a statement about infinitesimal change; "increasing" compares f(b)f(b) with f(a)f(a) a finite distance apart. The Mean Value Theorem is the exact bridge between the two, at the price of not knowing cc.

IIVisualization 1 — Exact Slope, Unknown Point

For f(x)=x39āˆ’x+2f(x) = \tfrac{x^3}{9} - x + 2, the line from (a,f(a))(a, f(a)) with slope f′(c)f'(c) lands exactly on (b,f(b))(b, f(b)).

IIIVisualization 2 — The Average Rate Is Trapped

The unknown slope f′(c)f'(c) always lies between the smallest and largest values of f′f' on [a,b][a, b], endpoints included.

šŸ’” Challenge: shrink [a,b][a, b] around a=0a = 0: the bounds squeeze together and the average rate approaches the initial speed f′(a)f'(a), which is when linear approximation is accurate.

IVVisualization 3 — The Inequality Ladder for exe^x

Each difference hn(x)=exāˆ’Pn(x)h_n(x) = e^x - P_n(x) starts at 00 and, for x>0x > 0, has derivative hnāˆ’1(x)>0h_{n-1}(x) > 0, so it stays positive there.

Step 1 — ex>1+xe^x > 1 + x
h1(x)=exāˆ’(1+x),h1(0)=1āˆ’1=0h_1(x) = e^x - (1 + x), \qquad h_1(0) = 1 - 1 = 0
h1′(x)=exāˆ’1>0(x>0)h_1'(x) = e^x - 1 > 0 \quad (x > 0)
exāˆ’1e^x - 1 is itself 00 at 00 with derivative ex>0e^x > 0; so h1h_1 is increasing and h1(x)>h1(0)=0h_1(x) > h_1(0) = 0.

šŸ’” In the limit the tortoise catches the hare: ex=1+x+x22+x33!+⋯e^x = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + \cdots, the Taylor series of exe^x.

VQuiz Questions

Problem 1 Ā· Read the Rearranged Theorem

Given: ff is differentiable everywhere, f(2)=5f(2) = 5, and f′(x)≄3f'(x) \ge 3 for all xx. Find the smallest value f(6)f(6) could possibly have.

āœ… Correct! f(6)=5+f′(c)ā‹…4≄5+3ā‹…4=17f(6) = 5 + f'(c)\cdot 4 \ge 5 + 3 \cdot 4 = 17, and f(x)=3xāˆ’1f(x) = 3x - 1 attains it.
āŒ Not quite. The slope multiplies the length bāˆ’a=4b - a = 4: the term is f′(c)(bāˆ’a)f'(c)(b - a), not f′(c)f'(c).
āŒ Not quite. f′(c)(bāˆ’a)≄12f'(c)(b - a) \ge 12 is the change f(6)āˆ’f(2)f(6) - f(2); add the starting value f(2)=5f(2) = 5.
āŒ Not quite. The factor is the length bāˆ’a=6āˆ’2=4b - a = 6 - 2 = 4, not b=6b = 6.
Show solution

Apply the rearranged theorem with a=2a = 2, b=6b = 6:

f(6)=f(2)+f′(c)(6āˆ’2)=5+4f′(c),2<c<6.f(6) = f(2) + f'(c)(6 - 2) = 5 + 4f'(c), \qquad 2 < c < 6.

Since f′(c)≄3f'(c) \ge 3 and 4>04 > 0, f(6)≄5+12=17f(6) \ge 5 + 12 = 17. The value is reached by f(x)=3xāˆ’1f(x) = 3x - 1, so the least possible value is 17\mathbf{17}.

Problem 2 Ā· Exact, Not Approximate

Given: f(x)=xf(x) = \sqrt{x} on [100,101][100, 101], so f′(x)=12xf'(x) = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}}. Which statement does the Mean Value Theorem prove?

āœ… Correct! f′(c)=12c<120f'(c) = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{c}} < \frac{1}{20} because c>100c > 100; indeed 101ā‰ˆ10.0499\sqrt{101} \approx 10.0499.
āŒ Not quite. 10+12010 + \frac{1}{20} uses the slope f′(100)f'(100) at the left end: that is the linear approximation. The theorem's slope is f′(c)f'(c) at an unknown c>100c > 100, so equality is not guaranteed (and is false).
āŒ Check the direction. f′f' is decreasing, so f′(c)<f′(100)=120f'(c) < f'(100) = \frac{1}{20} for every c>100c > 100.
āŒ Not quite. f′(100)=12ā‹…10=0.05f'(100) = \frac{1}{2 \cdot 10} = 0.05, not 0.0050.005.
Show solution

With a=100a = 100, b=101b = 101:

101=100+12c(101āˆ’100)=10+12c,100<c<101.\sqrt{101} = \sqrt{100} + \frac{1}{2\sqrt{c}}(101 - 100) = 10 + \frac{1}{2\sqrt{c}}, \qquad 100 < c < 101.

Because c>100c > 100, c>10\sqrt{c} > 10 and 12c<120=0.05\frac{1}{2\sqrt{c}} < \frac{1}{20} = 0.05. Hence 101<10.05\sqrt{101} < 10.05. The tangent-line value 10.0510.05 is only an approximation, and here an overestimate.

Problem 3 Ā· Prove an Inequality by a Difference

Given: h(x)=xāˆ’ln⁔(1+x)h(x) = x - \ln(1 + x) for x≄0x \ge 0, with h(0)=0h(0) = 0. Find h′(x)h'(x), then the inequality the method proves for x>0x > 0.

What is h′(x)h'(x)?

Which inequality follows for x>0x > 0?

āœ… Correct! h(0)=0h(0) = 0 and h′>0h' > 0 for x>0x > 0, so h(x)>0h(x) > 0, which says ln⁔(1+x)<x\ln(1 + x) < x.
āŒ Check the derivative. ddxln⁔(1+x)=11+x\frac{d}{dx}\ln(1 + x) = \frac{1}{1 + x}, so h′(x)=1āˆ’11+xh'(x) = 1 - \frac{1}{1 + x}; combine over a common denominator.
āŒ Check the direction. h(x)=xāˆ’ln⁔(1+x)>0h(x) = x - \ln(1 + x) > 0 puts xx on top: x>ln⁔(1+x)x > \ln(1 + x).
āŒ Not quite. The method only shows h(x)>0h(x) > 0; read that off directly. That bound is false: at x=1x = 1 its right-hand side is 12\frac12, but ln⁔2ā‰ˆ0.693\ln 2 \approx 0.693.
Show solution

Derivative:

h′(x)=1āˆ’11+x=(1+x)āˆ’11+x=x1+x.h'(x) = 1 - \frac{1}{1 + x} = \frac{(1 + x) - 1}{1 + x} = \frac{x}{1 + x}.

For x>0x > 0 both numerator and denominator are positive, so h′(x)>0h'(x) > 0.

Conclusion: hh is increasing on [0,āˆž)[0, \infty), so for x>0x > 0, h(x)>h(0)=0h(x) > h(0) = 0:

xāˆ’ln⁔(1+x)>0ā€…ā€ŠāŸŗā€…ā€Šln⁔(1+x)<x.x - \ln(1 + x) > 0 \iff \ln(1 + x) < x.

Problem 4 Ā· When the Sign Rule Seems to Fail

Given: f(x)=1xf(x) = \frac{1}{x} has f′(x)=āˆ’1x2<0f'(x) = -\frac{1}{x^2} < 0 at every point of its domain, yet f(āˆ’1)=āˆ’1<1=f(1)f(-1) = -1 < 1 = f(1). Which statement explains this?

āœ… Correct! The proof applies the theorem to the pair a=āˆ’1a = -1, b=1b = 1, which needs ff on the whole interval between them. ff is decreasing on (āˆ’āˆž,0)(-\infty, 0) and on (0,āˆž)(0, \infty) separately.
āŒ Not quite. f′(c)=āˆ’1c2f'(c) = -\frac{1}{c^2} is negative at every c≠0c \ne 0, and c=0c = 0 is not in the domain.
āŒ Not quite. That describes linear approximation. The Mean Value Theorem is exact on any interval, short or long, where its hypotheses hold.
āŒ Not quite. The proof uses only the rearranged theorem, valid for any function continuous on [a,b][a, b] and differentiable on (a,b)(a, b).
Show solution

The proof of "f′<0⇒f' < 0 \Rightarrow decreasing" takes a<ba < b and writes f(b)=f(a)+f′(c)(bāˆ’a)f(b) = f(a) + f'(c)(b - a). That step needs ff continuous on [a,b][a, b] and differentiable on (a,b)(a, b).

For a=āˆ’1a = -1, b=1b = 1 the interval contains 00, where f(x)=1xf(x) = \frac{1}{x} is not defined, so the theorem does not apply. On any interval avoiding 00 it does apply, so ff is decreasing on (āˆ’āˆž,0)(-\infty, 0) and on (0,āˆž)(0, \infty), though not on its whole domain.

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